Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 08:01

There's no rule.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Do the British people realize how much American people absolutely despise them?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Why should we share our wife with others?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Why do companies cull employees during financial downturns without saying so?
You'll usually find your answer there.